I thought drag was roughly (r^2)(v^3). In any case, the question is one of whether Aristotle had a good enough theory of atmosphere to abstract it away from his theory of falling. Absent that, it's slanderous to accuse him of being wrong if he folds drag into his theory, don't you think? My overall impression of the ancients is that they had good measurements, but weak theory.
no subject
Date: 2007-08-08 10:16 am (UTC)